Showing posts with label Railway Recruitment Board. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Railway Recruitment Board. Show all posts

Saturday, November 23, 2013

RRC / RRB Group-D Posts 24th Nov, 1st Dec, 8th Dec Exams Answer Key

RRC / RRB Group-D Posts Answer Key will be available here. Within the different areas of Railway Recruitment Board Group D posts on 17/08/12 announcement. 

According to the names of the candidates in accordance with the October 27, November 17th 2013, November 24th 2013, December 1st 2013 & December 8th, on the recruitment cell has decided to conduct a series of tests. As part of the Sunday (November 17) at the ratapariksaku experts, the 'key'. It is not only for the understanding of the candidates. 

The candidates who were competed in RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013  at various examination centers for vacancies are now eager to verify the RRC Railway Group D Exam Answer Key 2013 through which they can verify the answers opted by them in the RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013. The candidates who have successfully completed their RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013 will be shortlisted in to RRC Railway Group D Merit List 2013 for the next level of Recruitment based on RRC Railway Group D Cut Off Marks 2013. It is also informed to all the combatants of RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013 that RRC Railway Group D Exam Answer Key 2013 will be made available within next 2 months from the date of commencement of RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013.

RRC Railway Group D Exam Answer Key,Cut Off Marks 2013. Railway Recruitment Cell has earlier released a recruitment notification ( RRC Recruitment 2013) to fill 1626 vacancies of Group D cadre vacancies. The candidates who have applied against 1626 jobs notified in RRC Railway Recruitment 2013 notification were appeared in the RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013. RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013 contained the questions from General Intelligence, General English, Mathematics and General Knowledge sections. The candidates who have appeared in RRC Railway Group D Exam 2013 held can verify and download their RRC Railway Group D Exam Answer Key  2013 on the official web link specified for RRC Railway Group D Exam Answer Key 2013.

RRC Group D 8th December 2013 Exam Question Paper & Key 
*For English Question Paper & Key -  Click Here new , 
*For Hindi Version Question Paper & Key -  Click Here new
*For Telugu Version Question Paper & Key - Click Here new
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RRC Group D 1st December 2013 Exam Question Paper & Key 
*For English Question Paper & Key - Click Here 
*For Hindi Version Question Paper & Key Click Here 
*For Telugu Version Question Paper & Key - Click Here 

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RRC Group D 24th November 2013 Exam Question Paper & Key 
*For Question Paper - Click Here 
*For Key - Click Here 
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November 24th, 2013 Exam Question Paper & Key - CLICK HERE new (Available Now..)
November 17th, 2013 Exam Question Paper & Key - CLICK HERE (Available Now..)
October 27th, 2013 Exam Question Paper & Key  - CLICK HERE (Available Now..)
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RRC RRB Group-D Posts Answer Key
RRC RRB Group-D
Posts Answer Key
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Saturday, December 29, 2012

RRB Expected Questions with Answers

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RRB Expected Questions with Answers, RRB Expected Important Questions with Answers, RRC Expected Questions with Answers, RRC Expected Important Questions with Answers, RRB Exams Expected Questions with Answers, RRB Exams Expected Important Questions with Answers, RRC Exams Expected Questions with Answers, RRC Exams Expected Important Questions with Answers

1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B




25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B


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RRB General Awareness Expected Questions with Answers

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RRB General Awareness Expected Questions with Answers, RRB General Awareness Expected Questions with Answers, RRB General Awareness Previous Questions with Answers, RRC General Awareness Expected Questions with Answers, RRC General Awareness Expected Questions with Answers, RRC General Awareness Previous Questions with Answers

1. Consider the following statements :
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given abova is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
2. Consider the following statements :
 1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.
 2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
3. Consider the following statements :
 1. The National' School of Drama was set up by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.
 2. The highest honour conferred by the Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing him its Fellow.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
4. Consider the following statements :
 1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.
 2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
5. Consider the following statements :
1. The Baglihar. Power Project had been constructed within the parameters of the Indus Water Treaty.
2. The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/arc; correct,?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
6. Consider the following statements :
 1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
 2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
7. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning :
 1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasised on the establishment of heavy industries.
 2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialisation.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
8. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.
 2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
9. Which of the following countries has not made any significant investment in India?
(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) Nepal
(d) Britain
Ans: (c)
10. Which of the following deals between India and one major country was put on a hold for some time as India is finding difficult to implement it?
(a) 123 Pact with USA
(b) Fifth generation fighter plane deal with Russia
(c) Heavy Water deal with Iran
(d) Border talks with China
Ans: (a)
11. Which of the following indexes is developed to measure life expectancy, level of literacy, education and standard of living of people in a country?
(a) Inflation
(b) Sensex
(c) Human Development Index
(d) SLR
Ans: (c)
12. Which of the following is not a Public Sector Unit/Undertaking/Agency?
(a) ECGC
(b) SEBI
(c) SIDBI
(d) Axis Bank
Ans: (b)
13. Which of the following political theories advocates the withering in a new society in which there will be no state and no classes?
(a) Liberalism
(b) Democratic Socialism
(c) Marxism
(d) Fabian Socialisn
Ans:(c)
14. Which of the following writs is issued to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess?
(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Habeas Corpus
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (a)
15. Which one of the following Articles Provide "Right to Equality"?
(a) Article-14
(b) Article-19
(c) Article-20
(d) Article-18
Ans:(a)
16. Which one of the following brings out the publication called "Energy Statistics" from time to time?
(a) Central Power Research Institute
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Power Finance Corporation Ltd.
(d) Central Statistical Organization
Ans: (d)
17. Which one of the following Constitutes limitation upon the concept of 'judicial Review' in India?
(a) Rule of Law
(b) Due Process
(c) Procedure established by law
(d) Equal Protection of law
Ans:(c)
18. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of
(a) 90th
(b) 91st
(c) 92nd
(d) 93rd
Ans: (b)
19. Which one of the following is correct about the expenses of a State Public Service Commission?
(a) Budget of the state
(b) Public Account of the state
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Consolidated Fund of State
Ans:(d)
20. Which one of the following is the proper authority to effect deprivation of some of the fundamental rights of the armed forces?
(a) The Parliament of India
(b) The President of India
(c) The Defence Ministe
(d) The Council of Ministers
Ans:(a)
21. Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
Ans: (c)
22. Which sector contributes the maximum share in National income of India?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All the above have equal share
Ans:(c)
23. Who among the following is known as the guardian of the Public Purse in India?
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(b) The President
(c) The Minister of Finance
(d) The Parliament
Ans: (a)
24. Who among the following is the chairman of National Commission on Farmers?
(a) Sharad Pawar
(b) M S Swaminathan
(c) Man Mohan Singh
(d) P G Bhatol
Ans:(b)
25. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Steering Committee to oversee the functions of the National Authority, Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The National Security Adviser
(d) The Cabinet Secretary
Ans:(d)
26. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: (a)
27. Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War?
(a) Gen. V. P. Malik
(b) Gen. S. K. Sinha
(c) K. Subramanyam
(d) K. C. Panth
Ans:(c)
28. Who is tha following participate in the election of the president of india but not in his impeachment?
(a) The nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislatures
(b) The members of Rajya Sabha
(c) The elected members members of the State Legislative Assemblies
(d) The members of the State Legislative Councils
Ans:(c)
29. Who is the signatory on the Indian currency notes in denomination of two rupees and above?
(a) Secretary, Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finance Secretary, Minister of Finance
(c) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(d) Finance Minister, Ministry of Finance
Ans: (c)
30 Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The President
(d) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans:(a)
31. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution
(a) High Court
(b) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) District Court
(d) Supreme Court of India
Ans:(d)
32. Who summons the joint sitting of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
33. With reference to I ho United Nations, consider the following statements :
1. The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States.
2. It is elected by a 2/3 majority of The General Assembly for a 3-year term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
34. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
35. With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
2. Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:(b)
36. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
37. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
38. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
39. With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt?
(a) Review of Centres-States relations
(b)  Review of Delimitation Act
(c)  Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues
(d)  Price-reforms in the oil sector
Ans: (d)
40. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it?
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Delhi Chalo Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Non – Cooperation Movement
Ans: (c)
41. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
(a) 8%
(b) 9%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 10%
Ans: (b)
42. Liberhan Commission has been appointed to deal with which one of the following?
(a) Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984
(b)Demolition of Babri Masjid
(c)Godhra Incident
(d) Mumbai Communal Riots
Ans: (b)
43. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007?
(a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
(b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
(c) P.Chidambaram
(d) Sushama Swaraj
Ans: (a)
44. What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment bill deal with?
(a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri,Maithili and Santhali , languages in the Eighth  Schedule
(b) Inclusion of service tax levied  by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the States in the Seventh Schedule
(c)Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (d)
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the house of Parliament.
2.The main purpose of these committees is to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
47. Which of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ?
(1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions.
(2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market.
(3) It is the name of the “Certificate of Deposits” provided by the banks to its retail customers.
(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (2)
(c) Only (3)
(d) Both (1) & (2)
Ans: (b)
48. Consider the following statements:
1.Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head.
2.The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
3.Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans: (c)
49. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States?
(a) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka
(c) Karnataka,Tamilnadu,Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh,Madhya Pradesh,Bihar
Ans: (a)
50. Which one of the following industries is not recommended by Investment commission as national thrust Area?
(a)Tourism
(b) Information Technology
(c) Agro-processing
(d) Textiles
Ans: (b)


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RRB ASM Model Papers with Answers

RRB ASM Mode Question Papers with Answers, RRB ASM Model Papers with Answers, RRC ASM Mode Question Papers with Answers, RRC ASM Model Papers with Answers


1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail
Ans:- C
2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal
(b) Station
(c) rail-head
(d) Base
Ans:- C
3. The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal
Ans:- C
4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years
(b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B
5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop
Ans:- A
6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm
Ans:- D
7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the …….. edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper
(b) middle
(c) inner
(d) outer
Ans:- C
8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C
9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs
Ans:- B
10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct
Ans:- B
11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate
Ans:- B
12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm
(b) 136.5 mm
(c) 66.7 mm
(d) 70 mm
Ans:- B
13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits
Ans:- C
14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 20
(c) 1 in 10
(d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B
15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces
Ans:- A
16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A
17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding
Ans:- A
18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section.
(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) trough
(d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C
19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans:- A
20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails
(c) Check rails
(d) Wing rails
Ans:- B
21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping
(b) creeping
(c) bulging
(d) buckling
Ans:- D
22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal
(b) diagonal
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical
Ans:- A
23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above
Ans:- C
24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above
Ans:- D
25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D
26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- B
27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock
(b) railway
(c) wagon
(d) locomotive
Ans:- D
28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- A
29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C
30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D
31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed
(b) double headed
(c) bull headed
(d) all above
Ans:- A
32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle
Ans:- B
33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m
(b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C
34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C
35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm
(b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm
(d) 150 mm
Ans:- B
36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way
(b) rails
(c) railway
(d) permanent way
Ans:- D
37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B
38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D
39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift
(b) site distance
(c) rail-head
(d) lead
Ans:- D
40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient
(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation
(d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C
41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I
(b) Keyman
(c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C
43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail
(b) stock rail
(c) lead rail
(d) point rail
Ans:- B
44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D
45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm
Ans:- D
46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%
Ans:- B
47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D
48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion
(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- A
49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C
50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A
51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982
(b) 1989
(c) 1984
(d) 1992
Ans: – C
52. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: – B
53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Patiala
(c) Perambur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: – B
54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Northern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Western Railway
Ans: – C
55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: – C
56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) Dock platform
(b) Passenger platform
(c) Island platform
(d) Goods platform
Ans: – C
57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1954
Ans: – B
58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1967
Ans: – B
59. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore
(b) Secundrabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Vadodara
Ans: – D
60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bangalore
(c) Pune
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- A
61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Ans:- B
62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi
(b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat
(d) From Mumbai to Madras
Ans:- B
63. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851
(b) 1852
(c) 1853
(d) 1854
Ans:- C
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans:- D
65. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station
(b) way-side-station
(c) block station
(d) terminal station
Ans:- D
66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 46 km
Ans:- C
67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans:- D
68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km
(b) 3700 Km
(c) 4290 km
(d) 5298 km
Ans:- B
69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- C
70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958
(b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956
(d) 14th April, 1952
Ans:- A
71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- B
72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Ans:- C
73. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Ans:- A
74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad
(d) Mumbai (Central)
Ans:- C
75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)
Ans:- A
76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- B
77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Ans:- B
78. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson
Ans:- D
79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune
Ans:- C
80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans:- C
81. The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Ans:- B
82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad
Ans:- A
83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans:- C
84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth
Ans:- B
85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge
(b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge
(d) Special gauge
Ans:- C
86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat
Ans:- A
87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:- B
88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- B
89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973
Ans:- C
90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- C
91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans:- B
92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:- A
93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965
Ans:- C
94. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951
Ans:- A
95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region
Ans:- B
96. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Ans:- A
97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954
Ans:- A
98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur
Ans:- C
99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans:- D
100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- A



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RRB Science Questions with Answers

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RRB Exams Science Questions with Answers, RRB Exams Important Science Questions with Answers, RRB Exams Model Science Questions with Answers, RRC Exams Science Questions with Answers, RRC Exams Important Science Questions with Answers, RRC Exams Model Science Questions with Answers


1. Which of the following is not a bone in the
human body?
(a)Sternum
(b) Humerus
(c)Pericardium
(d) Tibia
Ans : c

2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight
Ans : a

3. Duodenum is situated
(a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine
(b) near the lungs
(c) in the brain
(d) at the tail end of the intestine
Ans : a

4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
(a) Epidermis
(b) Dermis
(c)Epicardium
(d) Pericardium
Ans : d

5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood.
(a) 99%
(b) 70%
(c) 5%
(d) 1%
Ans : d

6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) non disjunction
(c) atrophy of endocrine glands
(d) inherited lack of an enzyme
Ans : c

7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood
(b) valves
(c) movements in the surrounding muscles
(d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls
Ans : b

8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
(b) gametes develop independently
(c) sperms develop independently
(d) ova develop independently
Ans : a

9. Element that is not found in blood is
(a)iron
(b) copper
(c)chromium
(d) magnesium
Ans : c

10. Scratching eases itching because
(a) it kills germs.
(b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching,
(c) it removes the outer dust in the skin.
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Ans : d
11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c)Thymus
(d) Adrenal
Ans : c
12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans : c
13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs
of human body?
(a) Radius
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Fibula
Ans : a
14. Bleeding from artery is characterised by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a)1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans : b
15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Molar tooth
(c) Appendix
(d) Diaphragm
Ans : d
16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans : b
17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in
(a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies
(c) growth of body
(d) keeping sugar balance in body
Ans : d
18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as
(a) Autoregulator
(b) Pace-maker
(c) Time controller
(d) Beat regulator
Ans : b
19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases,
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
Of these, the correct ones are
(a)1 and 4
(b) l, 2and 3
(c)2,3 and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Ans : d
20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone
21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack?
1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries
(a)1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 2, 1 3
Ans : b
22. Bile juice is secreted by
(a)Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c)Spleen
(d) Gall bladder
Ans : b
23. Veins differ from arteries in having
(a) thinner walls
(b) strong walls
(c) narrower lumen
(d) valves to control direction of flow
Ans : d
24. What is the main function of insulin in the hman body?
(a) To maintain blood pressure
(b) To help in digestion of food
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body
(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Ans : c
25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
(a) pepsin
(b) tiypsin
(c) ptyalin
(d) maltose
Ans : a
26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in
(a)arteries
(b) veins
(c)auricles
(d) ventricles
Ans : a
27. The total number of bones in human skull are
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 32
Ans : c
28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans : d
29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human
body by?
(a)red blood cells
(b) blood platelets
(c)white blood cells
(d) hormones
Ans : a
30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans : d
31. The normal temperature of the human body is
(a) 90 F
(b) 98 F
(c) 98.4 F
(d)96.4 F
Ans : c
32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans : d
33. The blood pressure values of four persons are
given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2.Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4.Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans : d

34. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’?
(a) fertilisation takes place inside the test tube.
(b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube.
(c) fertilisation takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilised egg develops inside the test tube.
Ans : c

35. Pituitary gland is present
(a) below the brain
(b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain
(d) nowhere near the brain
Ans : a

36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans : d

37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs
of human body?
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d)Heart
Ans : a

38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle
(b) A nerve
(c) A bone
(d) A blood vessel
Ans : b

39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because?
(a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
(b) they have a many – chambered stomach.
(c) they have efficient grinding molars.
(d) they produce an enzyme cellulase which can digest cellulose.
Ans : a

40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans : c
41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ?
(a) 24
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
Ans : c

42. The largest cell in the human body is
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell
Ans : a

43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of
(a) moss and fungi
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) algae and fungi
(d) None of these
Ans : c

44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans : c

45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons?
(a) They live on the surface of lake water.
(b They live on the bottom of lakes.
(c) They live on the plants growing in water.
(d) They live in the water column.
Ans : b

46. Which of the following has the smallest egg?
(a) Ostrich
(b) Humming bird
(c) Pigeon
(d) Homo sapiens
Ans : c

47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Fishes
(c) Birds
(d) Beetles
Ans : d

48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to
(a) stings of rays
(b) salivary glands of vertebrates
(c) electric organs of fishes
(d) sebaccous glands of mammals
Ans : b

49. The phylum chordata is characterised by the presence of
(a) spinal cord
(b) notochord
(c) nerve chord
(d) None of these
Ans : d

50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans : c


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